fluent?

Bilinguals are rarely equally fluent in all situations in both languages. Do you agree with the statement?

state
Yes, bilinguals are rarely equally fluent in all situations in both languages

Def
bilinguals are individuals with acquisition of 2 or more languages

1) bilinguals use lang separately/together in different domains, to different people for different purposes
2) the need or use of the language is different thus it is not possible to be fluent in both
3) the fluency of the lang is dependent on the need for the language and is domain specific.
4) most ppl have 1 dominant lang which they are more fluent in and is their preferred lang.
5) this is because humans rarely have equal exposure to the same context/ situation.
6) thus it is impossible to be fluent in both unless since childhood, equal exposure to the same context/situation remains constant thru-out

Chomsky's LAD
The way our parameters are set also affects the fluency of languages.

1) parameters are triggered by linguistic input
2) constant exposure of one language in a particular context will set the parameters of that lang in a certain way.
3) as all languages are different, the parameters for each lang would also be set differently. Thus the parameters of the diff languages are set differently in the LAD.
4) however, overtime, the switches will be loose as we constantly change from language to language due to the constant switching of parameters.
In this case, it would mean that both languages may not be as fluent

Eg: children brought up in one-parent-one-language environment.
- child of French/ English parents studied in France but came to live in Britian. The child can converse in both languages but find it difficult to explain geography in English and explain baby care in French